{"id":12,"date":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","date_gmt":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/strivetoenter.com\/wim\/?p=12"},"modified":"2015-10-19T20:33:49","modified_gmt":"2015-10-20T03:33:49","slug":"doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/strivetoenter.com\/wim\/2006\/04\/06\/doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers\/","title":{"rendered":"Doesn't 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers?"},"content":{"rendered":"\n

Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 \u201ccharge some that they teach no other doctrine\u201d means people male or female. However isn\u2019t the technical grammar of \u201csome\u201d as singular masculine?<\/p><\/blockquote>\n

A: This is an excellent question and I am glad that you asked this. Although 1 Timothy 1:3 has a generic meaning of male or female, the fine points of the grammar show that the Greek is singular masculine. However this grammar does not exclude females.<\/p>\n

You see this exact same grammar is used multiple times regarding salvation and the general body of Christ and although these passages are also singular masculine, they include both male and female. Let me give you an example. 2 Timothy 3:17 says:<\/p>\n

\u201cso the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.\u201d<\/p><\/blockquote>\n

Who is the man of God? The Greek word is anthropos which means human being and it is again a generic term, but the technical grammar is also singular masculine. Now we ask, does the church believe that this verse is only for men or are women included too? Women are included of course and the singular masculine form of the generic word for human being in no way excludes women. Here is another. John 6:51 says:<\/p>\n

\u201cI am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever\u2026\u201d<\/p><\/blockquote>\n

Who is the anyone that Jesus says can partake of him? The Greek term for anyone is a generic term again meaning male or female, and once again the technical grammar is singular masculine. Now we ask, are only males allowed to partake of Jesus? Of course not! The singular masculine again in no way excludes women. So when we go back to 1 Timothy 1:3 we see that the generic term for human beings with the singular masculine is not restricting the false deceived teachers to men. In fact we see a false teacher who is female in chapter 2 and this one Paul says is deceived as Eve was.<\/p>\n

One last example. Matthew 9:38 says:<\/p>\n

\u201cPray ye therefore the Lord of the harvest, that he will send forth laborers into his harvest.\u201d<\/p><\/blockquote>\n

Now who is it that we are to pray for? Are there only to be male laborers in the harvest field? The Greek term for laborers means \u201cworkmen\u201d. The Greek is in the plural masculine. The church has always believed and taught that all Christians \u2013 male and female are part of the laborers. Should we now say that the plural masculine term here excludes women? Never! I rest my case.<\/p>\n<\/body>","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 \u201ccharge some that they teach no other doctrine\u201d means people male or female. However isn\u2019t the technical grammar of \u201csome\u201d as singular masculine? A: This is an excellent question and I am glad that you asked this. Although 1 Timothy 1:3 has a generic meaning of male or female, the fine points of the grammar show that the Greek is singular masculine. However this grammar does not exclude females.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":2,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"jetpack_post_was_ever_published":false,"_jetpack_newsletter_access":"","_jetpack_dont_email_post_to_subs":false,"_jetpack_newsletter_tier_id":0,"_jetpack_memberships_contains_paywalled_content":false,"_jetpack_memberships_contains_paid_content":false,"footnotes":"","jetpack_publicize_message":"","jetpack_publicize_feature_enabled":true,"jetpack_social_post_already_shared":false,"jetpack_social_options":{"image_generator_settings":{"template":"highway","enabled":false},"version":2}},"categories":[5],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-12","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-1-timothy-issues"],"jetpack_publicize_connections":[],"yoast_head":"\nDoesn't 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers? - Women in Ministry<\/title>\n<meta name=\"robots\" content=\"index, follow, max-snippet:-1, max-image-preview:large, max-video-preview:-1\" \/>\n<link rel=\"canonical\" href=\"https:\/\/strivetoenter.com\/wim\/2006\/04\/06\/doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers\/\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:locale\" content=\"en_US\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:type\" content=\"article\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:title\" content=\"Doesn't 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers? - Women in Ministry\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:description\" content=\"Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 \u201ccharge some that they teach no other doctrine\u201d means people male or female. 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